The bid–ask matrix is a matrix with elements corresponding with exchange rates between the assets. These rates are in physical units (e.g. number of stocks) and not with respect to any numeraire. The ( i , j ) {\displaystyle (i,j)} element of the matrix is the number of units of asset i {\displaystyle i} which can be exchanged for 1 unit of asset j {\displaystyle j} .
A d × d {\displaystyle d\times d} matrix Π = [ π i j ] 1 ≤ i , j ≤ d {\displaystyle \Pi =\left[\pi _{ij}\right]_{1\leq i,j\leq d}} is a bid-ask matrix, if
Assume a market with 2 assets (A and B), such that x {\displaystyle x} units of A can be exchanged for 1 unit of B, and y {\displaystyle y} units of B can be exchanged for 1 unit of A. Then the bid–ask matrix Π {\displaystyle \Pi } is:
It is required that x y ≥ 1 {\displaystyle xy\geq 1} by rule 3.
With 3 assets, let a i j {\displaystyle a_{ij}} be the number of units of i traded for 1 unit of j. The bid–ask matrix is:
Rule 3 applies the following inequalities:
For higher values of d, note that 3-way trading satisfies Rule 3 as
If given a bid–ask matrix Π {\displaystyle \Pi } for d {\displaystyle d} assets such that Π = ( π i j ) 1 ≤ i , j ≤ d {\displaystyle \Pi =\left(\pi ^{ij}\right)_{1\leq i,j\leq d}} and m ≤ d {\displaystyle m\leq d} is the number of assets which with any non-negative quantity of them can be "discarded" (traditionally m = d {\displaystyle m=d} ). Then the solvency cone K ( Π ) ⊂ R d {\displaystyle K(\Pi )\subset \mathbb {R} ^{d}} is the convex cone spanned by the unit vectors e i , 1 ≤ i ≤ m {\displaystyle e^{i},1\leq i\leq m} and the vectors π i j e i − e j , 1 ≤ i , j ≤ d {\displaystyle \pi ^{ij}e^{i}-e^{j},1\leq i,j\leq d} .[1]
Similarly given a (constant) solvency cone it is possible to extract the bid–ask matrix from the bounding vectors.
Arbitrage is where a profit is guaranteed.
If Rule 3 from above is true, then a bid-ask matrix (BAM) is arbitrage-free, otherwise arbitrage is present via buying from a middle vendor and then selling back to source.
A method to determine if a BAM is arbitrage-free is as follows.
Consider n assets, with a BAM π n {\displaystyle \pi _{n}} and a portfolio P n {\displaystyle P_{n}} . Then
where the i-th entry of V n {\displaystyle V_{n}} is the value of P n {\displaystyle P_{n}} in terms of asset i.
Then the tensor product defined by
should resemble π n {\displaystyle \pi _{n}} .
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