According to Osborne it is Left derived functors that are defined using projective resolutions and right derived functors that use injective resolutions. Doesn'
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According to Osborne it is Left derived functors that are defined using projective resolutions and right derived functors that use injective resolutions. Doesn't this make Ext left derive.
IE start with a covariant functor Hom(X,-) and some object A, take a projective resolution of X, P_n --> ... --> P_0 --> X, then apply Hom, cut the end off: Hom(P_n,A) --> ... --> Hom(P_0,A), then take cohomology of the complex?
Hom(A,-) is [covariant] left-exact, but contrary to what is in the article, Hom(-,B) is also left-exact. (See exact functor.) This is why both have right-derived functors. (Changed.) Tesseran 20:08, 11 February 2007 (UTC)
The examples have dangling references. Should R and M be the same? --MarSch 13:53, 2 May 2007 (UTC)
The interesting examples subsection reads fine as English (I can't follow the math at this level). I made a couple of minor edits in earlier subsections for clarity; for instance Ring Structure... subsection above. I didn't change any math/markup/symbols/ , so someone might like to check the argument remains sound.Newbyguesses 23:13, 3 May 2007 (UTC)
The claims of this chapter should be made more explicit. Quote:
Let be a ring and let be the category of modules over R. Let be in and set , for fixed in . This is a left exact functor and thus has right derived functors . Define
i.e., take an injective resolution
compute
and take the cohomology of this complex.
So is Extn supposed to be the n-th cohomology group of this complex? And why is the right derived functor the same as this cohomology? This should be explained. --Roentgenium111 (talk) 03:25, 5 July 2009 (UTC)
This needs some correction or clarification:
"For Fp the finite field on p elements, we also have that H*(G,M) = Ext* Fp[G](Fp, M), and it turns out that the group cohomology doesn't depend on the base ring chosen." — Preceding unsigned comment added by 80.42.253.109 (talk) 17:59, 7 May 2013 (UTC)
As the article currently looks, it is not very good at explaining why this concept should be called an extension of and , or indeed why this would be a natural thing to consider. It is not until one gets to the Yoneda definition in the context of abelian categories we get to a definition that looks natural to a reader who does not compulsively extend every object to a resolution: we consider exact sequences with steps between and , and want to classify these up to isomorphism — that's a reasonably natural thing to do, even for a reader who does not yet understand why the sequences should be exact, or why we go from to rather than the other way around, or indeed why this may be considered "an extension" (although the Ext and extensions section gives some clues to the diligent reader). To instead throw up two different definitions, one of which singles out and the other , simply cries out that there must be a more unified perspective!
The framing of the Yoneda definition, with the reservation that it is equivalent to the first definition for modules only if there are enough projectives or injectives, also strikes me as misleading, because isn't it for modules always possible to find an epimorphism from a free module? I can however believe equivalence of the characterisations using right/left derived functors breaks down if there aren't necessarily enough projectives/injectives to construct the resolutions that machinery makes use of. 130.243.94.123 (talk) 11:59, 11 May 2023 (UTC)
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