Interpreting "Adaptiveness" as that such a process "not being able to look into the future" seems at least odd, as at first sight the measurability properties s
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Interpretation concerning "cannot see in the future"
Interpreting "Adaptiveness" as that such a process "not being able to look into the future" seems at least odd, as at first sight the measurability properties seem like a positive property("the filtration contains at least the history of the process") and not a negative one (not being able to look into the futures, such interpration i find to be more plausible for the negation of "predictability" as for example according to the Wikipedia Page on "Predictable Process"). Along these line I expect the existence of an adaptive "but" also predictable process (contradicting the interpretation in the article). Am I way off here ?
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Latest comment: 15 years ago7 comments3 people in discussion
Yes, "adapted" and "non-anticipating" are synonyms. I have added a note to this effect in the main article. I have also added redirects from "nonanticipating process" and "non-anticipating process". Sullivan.t.j22:37, 1 September 2006 (UTC)Reply
Are you sure? I think we can have a process that is not adapted, but still non-anticipating. For example, if F is filtration generated by Brownian motion, and G is filtration that contains F plus extra, but this extra is independent of the future, then we can define a process X(t) that is NOT adapted to F (depends on this extra), but is still non-anticipating. You can actually integrate this process w.r.t Brownian motion, but Ito/Martingale representation will not work (I think). 89.235.241.7 (talk) 22:50, 26 May 2011 (UTC)Reply
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